Answer :
Final answer:
Given the patient's described symptoms, recent history of travel to India, and the detection of gram-negative bacilli in his blood cultures, the most likely diagnosis is Typhoid fever.
Explanation:
The symptoms described in your question, along with the patient's recent travel history and the gram-negative bacilli that have been observed in his blood samples, suggest that the most likely diagnosis for this 32-year-old man is E. Typhoid.
Typhoid fever, typically caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi, is a common health issue among travelers, especially those returning from countries like India. The symptoms, which include fever, abdominal pain, constipation, and lethargy, typically manifest one to three weeks after exposure to the bacterium. Furthermore, the disease is characterized by the growth anaerobic and aerobic gram-negative bacilli in blood cultures, as observed in this case.
Other diagnoses in the options like dengue, E. coli, leptospirosis, and malaria are less likely because their characteristic symptoms and diagnostic results don't align as closely with this patient's description. This man's symptoms rather uniquely align with the characteristics of Typhoid, making it the most probable diagnosis.
Learn more about Typhoid fever here:
https://brainly.com/question/32175457
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