A 20-year-old G2P1 woman is at 41 weeks gestation. Her prenatal course and past medical history are unremarkable. She has not had any complications with her pregnancy, and fetal surveillance is reassuring.

Which of the following complications is most likely to occur in this pregnancy?

A. Preeclampsia
B. Retained placenta
C. Postpartum hemorrhage
D. Macrosomia
E. Placenta abruption

Macrosomia, where the baby is larger than average, is the most likely complication for a pregnancy at 41 weeks without any previous complications or anomalies. This is due to the extended duration of the pregnancy which allows for more growth. The correct option is D.

Explanation:

The complication most likely to occur in a pregnancy at 41 weeks gestation in a 20-year-old G2P1 woman without any previous complications or abnormalities is Macrosomia. Macrosomia refers to a newborn who's significantly larger than average. The baby may be larger due to an extended gestation period. This is because the longer a fetus remains in the uterus, the more it grows. Preeclampsia, retained placenta, postpartum hemorrhage, and placenta abruption are severe conditions that usually would have some signs or risk factors present. Without any sign of them, it's less likely for them to occur.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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