College

A 30-year-old woman is evaluated during a new-patient appointment. Her personal medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medication. Her family history includes colon cancer diagnosed in her mother at age 48, endometrial cancer diagnosed in a maternal aunt at age 51, and colon cancer diagnosed in her maternal grandfather at age 55. All physical examination findings, including vital signs, are normal. Genetic testing for the MSH2 mutation is positive, consistent with Lynch syndrome.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

1) Colectomy
2) Colonoscopy at age 38
3) Colonoscopy at age 40
4) Colonoscopy now

Answer :

Final answer:

In light of the family history and Lynch syndrome, the most appropriate next step for the 30-year-old woman is to undergo a colonoscopy immediately, to identify and remove any precancerous polyps, reducing the risk of colon cancer. Ongoing communication with her healthcare provider is crucial.

Explanation:

Given the individual's family history of colon and endometrial cancer and her positive MSH2 mutation indicating Lynch syndrome, the most appropriate next step would be a colonoscopy now. Lynch syndrome significantly increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Although routine colonoscopy screenings typically begin at age 50, those with a high risk should start screening earlier.

Endometrial cancer and other types of cancer are also common in individuals with Lynch syndrome. Therefore, it's essential to carry out early detection screenings. Although a colectomy could be a consideration down the line, it is not the first step.

Having the colonoscopy now will allow the healthcare provider to identify and remove any precancerous polyps, thus significantly reducing the risk. Communication with a healthcare provider can also ensure the appropriate ongoing management of this individual's health.

Learn more about Lynch Syndrome and Colonoscopy here:

https://brainly.com/question/31218840

#SPJ11