A 25-year-old female presents with frequent unilateral headaches, photophobia, nausea, and occasional vomiting. She reports experiencing these symptoms two to three times per week. She has tried ibuprofen with minimal relief. Her past medical history is significant for untreated depression. Her family history is significant for similar headaches. The physical examination is unremarkable, and her vital signs are within normal limits.

Which of the following medications would most likely relieve this patient's symptoms?

1) Oxycodone
2) Tramadol
3) Amitriptyline
4) Propranolol

Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is the medication most likely to relieve the patient's migraine symptoms and concurrently manage her untreated depression. The correct option is 3.

The 25-year-old female patient's symptoms suggest she is experiencing migraine headaches, which are often characterized by unilateral throbbing pain, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. Given that ibuprofen, which is an NSAID commonly used for migraines, provided minimal relief, an alternative pharmaceutical approach should be considered.

Among the list of medications, amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to be effective in reducing migraine pain due to its ability to inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin.

Additionally, the patient's history of untreated depression may be concurrently managed with this medication. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is another preventive option for migraines, but may not be as suitable in acute settings as amitriptyline.