A 22-year-old G0 woman college student returns for follow-up of mood swings and difficulty concentrating on her schoolwork the week before her menses for the past 12 months. Her past medical history is unremarkable and physical examination is normal. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment option for this patient?

A. Oral contraceptive pills

B. Reassurance and observation

C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

D. Gabapentin

E. Ginkgo

The symptoms suggest Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD). The best treatment option listed is Oral Contraceptive Pills, as they can control hormonal fluctuations related to the syndrome.

Explanation:

The patient's symptoms of mood swings and concentration difficulties before her menses suggests she may be dealing with Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD), a severe form of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS). In this context, the best treatment option from the choices provided is A. Oral Contraceptive Pills. These can stabilize hormonal fluctuations that may contribute to the symptoms. It should be noted, this treatment option assumes that the patient does not have any contraindications to hormonal contraception. Any treatment would ideally be done in consultation with a qualified healthcare provider.

Learn more about Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder here:

https://brainly.com/question/32134761

#SPJ11